Back before the internet, before information was easily available, it was easy to reconcile the snippets of things we'd hear that didn't come through the Church's filters with the stuff we had been taught in church. But I'm finding there's a whole lot more out there that causes questions, even to the point of cognitive dissonance. J. Reuben Clark once said, "If we have the truth, it cannot be harmed by investigation. If we have not the truth, it ought to be harmed." There is no reason these things should not be examined to see if there are satisfactory explanations. Sure, there may items here or there for which information or background is lacking, and a satisfactory answer is not practical, but most should be explainable.
By the way, if you have no interest in rationally discussing these things, but feel an urge to call people to repentance and question the faith of people who are discussing these things, please do me and everyone else interested in this thread a favor and just stay away from it. I'm hoping for a thread where the snarkiness is kept to a minimum - to many of us, these are significant, serious questions. Please respect that.
Here's the first one I want to address: Why is it that Joseph Smith's first written account of the First Vision wasn't made for around 12 years, and why does it differ so much from the one we taught on our missions? As a lawyer, if I'm examining someone about contradictory accounts of an event, and they were claiming that an account prepared much later in time was actually the more accurate, I would be all over them about why they think their memory of the event was better at a time much more distant than the earlier account. In Joseph Smith's case, I would seriously question significant omissions in the earlier account, such as the fact he only related seeing one person ("the Lord"), and he said nothing about being told not to join other churches. He also said he was in his 16th year, not his 14th. This account was included in a personal history he prepared (Frederick G. Williams apparently wrote some of it, too).
Then in his personal diary in 1835, he recorded the vision with two unidentified personages appearing to him, not identifying them as God and Jesus Christ; one of them "testified [to him] that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." He then said he saw many angels as part of the vision.
It appears that the first time (at least in surviving writings) that Joseph specifically identifies the personages as God and Christ was in 1842, more than 20 years after the First Vision occurred. To my knowledge, prior to 1832, there is no clear record of the First Vision. It appears there are some references to it as early as 1827, and some indication that Joseph was teaching that he had seen God and/or Jesus Christ, but it's not clear whether that was in the context of the First Vision.
FAIR's explanation is unsatisfying, and inconsistent with my understanding of how witness recall and memory works. If someone has a vision where God and Jesus identify themselves to him, why not record it in your history or your diary? That's a monumental thing that I don't really understand how you can keep out of your personal record - if you're going to record a vision in which you see God and Christ, are you really going to leave out the identity of the two personages?
By the way, if you have no interest in rationally discussing these things, but feel an urge to call people to repentance and question the faith of people who are discussing these things, please do me and everyone else interested in this thread a favor and just stay away from it. I'm hoping for a thread where the snarkiness is kept to a minimum - to many of us, these are significant, serious questions. Please respect that.
Here's the first one I want to address: Why is it that Joseph Smith's first written account of the First Vision wasn't made for around 12 years, and why does it differ so much from the one we taught on our missions? As a lawyer, if I'm examining someone about contradictory accounts of an event, and they were claiming that an account prepared much later in time was actually the more accurate, I would be all over them about why they think their memory of the event was better at a time much more distant than the earlier account. In Joseph Smith's case, I would seriously question significant omissions in the earlier account, such as the fact he only related seeing one person ("the Lord"), and he said nothing about being told not to join other churches. He also said he was in his 16th year, not his 14th. This account was included in a personal history he prepared (Frederick G. Williams apparently wrote some of it, too).
Then in his personal diary in 1835, he recorded the vision with two unidentified personages appearing to him, not identifying them as God and Jesus Christ; one of them "testified [to him] that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." He then said he saw many angels as part of the vision.
It appears that the first time (at least in surviving writings) that Joseph specifically identifies the personages as God and Christ was in 1842, more than 20 years after the First Vision occurred. To my knowledge, prior to 1832, there is no clear record of the First Vision. It appears there are some references to it as early as 1827, and some indication that Joseph was teaching that he had seen God and/or Jesus Christ, but it's not clear whether that was in the context of the First Vision.
FAIR's explanation is unsatisfying, and inconsistent with my understanding of how witness recall and memory works. If someone has a vision where God and Jesus identify themselves to him, why not record it in your history or your diary? That's a monumental thing that I don't really understand how you can keep out of your personal record - if you're going to record a vision in which you see God and Christ, are you really going to leave out the identity of the two personages?
Comment